The treasury RFV is thought to be an upper bound on the total supply of OHM. From what I've seen in the documentation, the RFV of the treasury is calculated under the assumption that it will always be the case that 1 OHM has a value greater than or equal to 1 DAI.
I’ve long been puzzled by this assumption. For the sake of argument, suppose that the total supply of OHM equals the RFV of the treasury and the value of OHM is exactly 1 DAI, then each OHM in the treasury OHM/DAI LP can only be converted to OHM for less than 1 DAI. So why would this OHM be valued at 1 DAI?
Recently, I did an analysis that values the OHM in the treasury LP at exactly zero and was pleased to learn that the upper bound on the total OHM supply is … the treasury RFV!
https://hackmd.io/RY9_NvKkQlOdIN-BVX0fqQ
This is a cleaner derivation of the upper bound on the total OHM supply than anything I’ve seen so far. If you’re wondering how this result was obtained when the treasury LP OHM is valued at zero, the intuitive explanation is that valuing such OHM at zero also means it no longer must be backed, which frees up “capacity” to back non-treasury OHM.